a public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan which of the following is the priority action
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Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

2. The nurse is planning a nutrition class for a group of high school students emphasizing the goals for nutrition from Healthy People 2020. Which meal selection provides the best choices in meeting these goals?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, and a whole wheat roll with 2% milk align with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020. These choices provide a balanced meal with vegetables, whole grains, and dairy, promoting a healthier dietary pattern. Choices A, B, and D do not offer as comprehensive a selection of food groups or as healthy options as choice C, making them less aligned with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

5. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.

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