Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

• A. Identifying available resources and services
• B. Conducting disaster drills
• C. Educating the community about disaster preparedness
• D. Developing a communication plan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

2. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

4. Which of the following is an example of a positive outcome for one of the Leading Health Indicators of Healthy People 2020?

• A. A community has adopted a no smoking policy.
• B. A rural community has a public transportation system.
• C. The high school dropout rate has decreased by 15%.
• D. A county has decreased its divorce rate by 10%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A community adopting a no smoking policy is a positive outcome for the Leading Health Indicators of Healthy People 2020 as it promotes a healthier environment by reducing exposure to secondhand smoke and decreasing smoking-related illnesses. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the goals of the Leading Health Indicators. While public transportation and reduced dropout rates are beneficial for community well-being, they are not specific examples of Leading Health Indicators. Decreasing divorce rates, while potentially beneficial for family stability, is not a focus area of the Leading Health Indicators.

5. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

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