HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Call the healthcare provider
- C. Prepare for chest x-ray
- D. Assess the client's lung sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
- A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
- B. It can cause drowsiness
- C. It should be taken with meals
- D. Completing the full course is crucial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving home oxygen therapy. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Use oxygen at the highest flow rate tolerated.
- B. Do not smoke while using oxygen.
- C. Avoid wearing the oxygen during physical activity.
- D. Store oxygen tanks in a cool, dark place.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is not to smoke while using oxygen. Smoking near oxygen can cause a fire or explosion due to the flammable nature of oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because using oxygen at the highest flow rate tolerated without medical supervision can be harmful. Choice C is the correct answer as wearing oxygen during physical activity can increase the risk of oxygen combustion. Choice D is not the most important instruction; while storing oxygen tanks properly is essential, the immediate safety concern is the risk of fire due to smoking near oxygen.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.
5. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
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