HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI)?
- A. Perform hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter
- B. Change the catheter every 72 hours
- C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site
- D. Irrigate the catheter daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter is crucial in preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI). This practice helps minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the urinary tract. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated as it can increase the risk of infection. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site is not a standard practice and may contribute to antibiotic resistance. Irrigating the catheter daily is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.
3. During a community health fair, a nurse is providing education on the effects of smoking. What is the most important information to include?
- A. Smoking can lead to cosmetic issues like tooth staining.
- B. Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.
- C. Smoking temporarily elevates mood and alertness.
- D. Smoking is an expensive habit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.' This information is crucial as it highlights the severe health risks associated with smoking, emphasizing the importance of cessation for overall health. Choice A is incorrect because cosmetic issues like tooth staining are not as significant as the life-threatening consequences of smoking. Choice C is incorrect because although smoking may temporarily elevate mood and alertness due to nicotine, this does not outweigh the serious health implications. Choice D is incorrect as while smoking is indeed an expensive habit, the focus should be on the health-related consequences to stress the urgency of quitting.
4. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fiber intake.
- B. Avoid spicy foods.
- C. Avoid dairy products.
- D. Consume a high-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.
5. The healthcare provider reviews the laboratory results of a client whose serum pH is 7.38. What does this value imply about the client's homeostasis?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Acidosis
- C. Normal serum pH
- D. Incompatible with life
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that the client’s acid-base balance is adequately maintained. Choices A and B are incorrect as alkalosis and acidosis refer to abnormal pH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a pH of 7.38 within the normal range is compatible with life.
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