HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use proper medical terms when providing instructions to the client.
- B. Offer written instructions in the client’s language.
- C. Direct verbal discharge instructions to the interpreter.
- D. Request that an assistive personnel interpret instructions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare provider when providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language is to offer written instructions in the client’s language. This approach helps ensure better comprehension and adherence to the instructions as the client can refer back to the written material for clarification. Choice A is incorrect because using proper medical terms may not be effective if the client does not understand the language. Choice C is incorrect since verbal instructions should be directed to the client for better understanding. Choice D is incorrect as assistive personnel may not be qualified or trained to provide accurate interpretation, risking miscommunication and potential errors in the instructions.
3. While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
- A. Remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene
- B. Change gloves and continue
- C. Wash hands immediately without removing gloves
- D. Report the incident to the supervisor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After completing the task, the nurse should remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene. This practice is crucial to prevent the transmission of any potential pathogens, maintain cleanliness, and reduce the risk of infection. Changing gloves and continuing without proper hand hygiene may lead to contamination. Washing hands immediately without removing gloves is not recommended as it does not ensure thorough hand hygiene. Reporting the incident to the supervisor should be done if there are specific protocols in place for such incidents, but immediate hand hygiene is the priority in this scenario to ensure patient and nurse safety.
4. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?
- A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
- B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
- C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
- D. Expressed feelings of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.
5. An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?
- A. Walking briskly
- B. Riding a bicycle
- C. Performing isometric exercises
- D. Engaging in high-impact aerobics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.
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