Nursing Elites

1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Draw up each medication separately in the syringe.
• C. Push the syringe plunger gently if feeling resistance.
• D. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.

3. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

4. A client has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Abdominal cramping
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Elevated heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia (low sodium levels). When sodium levels drop, it can lead to changes in the body's water balance, affecting cell function and causing symptoms like abdominal cramping. Increased thirst (choice B) is more commonly associated with hypernatremia (high sodium levels) due to the body's attempt to dilute the excess sodium. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) and elevated heart rate (choice D) are not typically direct manifestations of low sodium levels and are more commonly seen in conditions like dehydration or shock.

5. A client with chronic back pain asks a nurse about receiving acupuncture for relief. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to receiving this treatment?

• A. Obesity
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraines
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cellulitis. Cellulitis is a contraindication for acupuncture due to the risk of infection. Acupuncture involves inserting needles into the skin, and if a person has cellulitis, which is a bacterial skin infection, there is a higher risk of introducing the infection deeper into the body. Obesity (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and migraines (choice C) are not contraindications for receiving acupuncture. These conditions do not pose a direct risk of complications related to acupuncture treatment.

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