Nursing Elites

1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription, such as lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily, is administered on a regular schedule with or without a termination date. It is a standard, ongoing prescription for maintenance therapy. Choice A, 'Single,' would typically refer to a one-time prescription. Choice B, 'Stat,' is used for prescriptions that are needed immediately or in emergency situations. Choice D, 'Now,' is not a common prescription type designation and is not applicable in this context.

3. The nurse receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
• B. Review the intake and output record
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the drainage tubing for a kink. A kink in the tubing can obstruct urine flow, potentially causing the low output. By addressing this first, the nurse can ensure that there are no physical obstructions hindering urine drainage. Reviewing the intake and output record is important, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence as it directly affects urine flow. Notifying the healthcare provider should be considered after assessing and resolving immediate issues. Giving the client water to drink may be appropriate, but addressing a kink in the tubing is the priority to ensure proper function of the urinary catheter.

4. A client is 6 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and is having difficulty voiding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void
• B. Provide the client with a bedpan while sitting upright
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and connect it to gravity drainage
• D. Encourage the client to limit fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void. This can help stimulate the urge to urinate in a non-invasive way, promoting natural voiding. Providing a bedpan while sitting upright is also a suitable approach to facilitate voiding by encouraging a more natural position. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be a last resort due to infection risks and discomfort associated with catheterization. Encouraging the client to limit fluid intake is not appropriate as hydration is crucial for overall health and can aid in promoting voiding. Therefore, the best initial intervention to promote voiding in this scenario is to allow the client to hear running water.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

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