Nursing Elites

1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

2. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. “Get up and change positions slowly.”
• B. “Avoid eating aged cheese and smoked meat.”
• C. “Report any unusual bruising or bleeding to the doctor immediately.”
• D. “Eat the same amount of foods that contain vitamin K every day.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to give the client who is starting on antihypertensive medication is to 'Get up and change positions slowly.' Antihypertensive medications can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, so changing positions slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choice B about avoiding aged cheese and smoked meat is more relevant for clients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) due to potential interactions. Choice C regarding reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is more applicable for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D about consuming consistent amounts of vitamin K-containing foods daily is important for clients taking warfarin, not antihypertensive medications.

3. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Warm, dry skin
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

5. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?

• A. Every 4 to 8 hours
• B. Every 12 to 24 hours
• C. Every 24 to 48 hours
• D. Every 72 to 96 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.

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