Nursing Elites

1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Protective
• D. Contact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.

3. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

4. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

5. A nurse educator is presenting a module on basic first aid for newly licensed home health nurses. The client who has heat stroke will have which of the following?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Clammy skin
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by elevated body temperature, which can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and vasodilation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and clammy skin are not typical findings in heat stroke. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is also not a common feature of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most likely cardiovascular manifestation seen in a client with heat stroke.

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