Nursing Elites

1. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

3. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?

• A. Ankle-foot orthotic
• B. Continuous passive motion machine
• C. Abduction splint
• D. Sequential compression device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.

4. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should comply with the request
• B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
• C. I will call your family to discuss this
• D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

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