HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?
- A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
- B. Infection at the surgical site
- C. Fluid overload
- D. Inadequate pain management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.
2. A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Plan meals with low carbohydrates and high protein
- B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of daily food and beverage intake
- D. Participate in a group exercise class three times a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
4. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Ask another nurse to observe medication wastage
- B. Document the amount of medication drawn on the MAR
- C. Dispose of the remaining medication in a sharps container
- D. Administer the entire vial of medication to avoid wastage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
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