Nursing Elites

1. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

2. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

3. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?

• A. A 16-year-old client who is married
• B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
• C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
• D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.

4. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

5. Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that they may have a thought disorder?

• A. 'I'm so angry about this. Wait until my partner hears about this.'
• B. 'I'm a little confused. What time is it?'
• C. 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?'
• D. 'I'm fine. It's my daughter who has the problem.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?' displays disorganized thinking or speech, which is characteristic of a thought disorder. The mention of 'missing shoes' in a context that does not make logical sense suggests a disturbance in thought processes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate disorganized thinking typical of thought disorders. Option A reflects emotional expression, option B indicates mild confusion, and option D shows a redirection of focus to someone else's problem.

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