a nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem one nurse criticizes another nurses contribution and begins to find ob
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

2. The community health nurse has been following the care for an adolescent with a history of morbid obesity, asthma, hypertension, and is 22 weeks into a pregnancy. Which of these lab reports sent to the clinic needs to be called to the teen's healthcare provider within the next hour?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The low magnesium level and elevated creatinine suggest possible renal dysfunction, which is concerning, especially in a pregnant client with multiple risk factors such as morbid obesity, asthma, and hypertension. Immediate attention is needed to address the potential renal issues. The other choices do not indicate such urgent conditions. Hemoglobin and calcium levels in choice A are within acceptable ranges. Choice C shows elevated blood urea nitrogen and glucose levels, which may need monitoring but not immediate attention. Choice D's hematocrit and platelet levels are also within normal ranges and do not indicate an urgent issue.

3. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

4. The nurse at a health fair has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action in response to significantly high blood pressure readings like 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg is to confirm the readings by taking the blood pressure in the other arm. This can help rule out any error or issue specific to that arm. The nurse should then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible to further assess the client's condition and determine the appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because solely referring the client to a nutritionist for a low-sodium diet without further assessment or confirmation of the blood pressure readings is premature. Choice B is incorrect as the client is already seated, and calling paramedics for immediate transport to the hospital is not warranted based solely on the blood pressure readings provided. Choice C is incorrect as stress may not be the sole reason for the high blood pressure readings, and further assessment is required before referring the client to counseling services.

5. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.

Similar Questions

The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?
Prior to initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
A community that uses the resources of a neighborhood church to provide a latchkey children program, to sponsor prayer/support groups for people who are ill, and to grow a community health garden that sends vegetables to elderly shut-ins is engaged in what kind of activity?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding community health nursing?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses