Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

• A. Let’s move on to a new action that deals with the problem.
• B. I think you need to reserve judgment until after all suggestions are offered.
• C. Very well thought out. Your analytic skills and interest are incredible.
• D. Let’s move to the ‘what if…’ as related to these objections for an exploration of spin-off ideas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

2. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

3. The delivery of basic health services was decentralized to the local government units. The legal basis for this is embodied in:

• A. RA 7035
• B. EO 119
• C. RA 7160
• D. PD 999

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, RA 7160. This law, also known as the Local Government Code, decentralizes health services to local government units. RA 7035 is not the legal basis for decentralizing basic health services. EO 119 and PD 999 are also not the correct legal bases for the decentralization of health services.

4. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?

• A. Playing with toys in a backyard flower garden
• B. Eating small amounts of grass while playing 'farm'
• C. Playing with cars on the pavement near burning leaves
• D. Throwing a ball to a neighborhood child who has poison ivy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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