Nursing Elites

1. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

• A. Double the birth weight
• B. Triple the birth weight
• C. Gain 6 ounces each week
• D. Add 2 pounds each month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age as part of normal growth and development. This doubling of weight is a common milestone used by healthcare providers to assess a baby's growth progress. Tripling the birth weight or adding 2 pounds each month would result in excessive weight gain, which is not typical or healthy for an infant. Similarly, gaining 6 ounces each week would also lead to rapid and abnormal weight gain, making it an incorrect choice.

2. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

3. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

4. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

• A. 45-year-old African-American attorney
• B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner
• C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse
• D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher

Correct answer: A

Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.

5. How does shock typically progress?

• A. Compensated to hypotensive shock in hours and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
• B. Compensated to hypotensive shock in minutes and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in hours
• C. Hypotensive to compensated shock in hours and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
• D. Hypotensive to compensated shock in minutes and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.

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