Nursing Elites

1. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?

• A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
• B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
• C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
• D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.

2. The nurse is counting a client's respiratory rate. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. Which respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate respiratory rate is the second count obtained by the nurse, which was not interrupted by coughing. The nurse counted eight respirations over 30 seconds, so doubling this count gives a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. This calculation is based on the assumption that the client's breathing pattern remained relatively stable during the two 30-second intervals. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate count obtained without interruptions. Choice B (16) is the correct answer as it reflects the uninterrupted count of respirations by the nurse.

3. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?

• A. Possible fracture of the tibia.
• B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
• C. Possible fracture of the radius.
• D. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.

4. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
• D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.

5. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

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