Nursing Elites

1. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?

• A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
• B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
• C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
• D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.

2. A client complained of nausea, a metallic taste in her mouth, and fine hand tremors 2 hours after her first dose of lithium carbonate (Lithane). What is the nurse's best explanation of these findings?

• A. These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.
• B. The client is probably having an allergic reaction and should discontinue the drug.
• C. Taking the lithium on an empty stomach should decrease these symptoms.
• D. Decreasing dietary intake of sodium and fluids should minimize the side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.' Nausea, metallic taste, and fine hand tremors are common side effects of lithium carbonate (Lithane) and typically diminish within a few days as the body adjusts to the medication. Option B is incorrect because these symptoms are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Option C is incorrect as taking lithium on an empty stomach does not directly address or decrease these specific side effects. Option D is also incorrect as reducing sodium and fluid intake is not the recommended approach to managing these particular side effects of lithium.

3. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?

• A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
• B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
• C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
• D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

4. What preparation should be made for a client undergoing a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography test?

• A. Client must be NPO before the examination
• B. Enema should be administered before the examination
• C. Medicate the client with furosemide 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the examination
• D. No special orders are necessary for this examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that no special orders are necessary for a KUB radiography test. It is important to inform the client to remove any clothing, jewelry, or objects that may interfere with the test. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO before this examination. Option B is incorrect as enemas are not routinely administered prior to a KUB radiography test. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to medicate the client with furosemide before this examination.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

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