NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. When assessing an older adult, which vital sign changes would the nurse recognize as occurring with aging?
- A. Increase in pulse rate
- B. Widened pulse pressure
- C. Increase in body temperature
- D. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing an older adult, the nurse should be aware that with aging, systolic blood pressure tends to increase, resulting in widened pulse pressure. While in many older individuals both systolic and diastolic pressures increase, the pulse rate and body temperature typically do not increase with aging. Therefore, the correct answer is widened pulse pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because pulse rate does not necessarily increase with age, body temperature generally remains stable, and diastolic blood pressure may increase instead of decreasing in many older adults.
2. When attempting to incorporate the Latino client's cultural background into the plan of care, which consideration is the most important?
- A. Socioeconomic considerations regarding hospitalization
- B. The meaning and attention the client places on the future
- C. The client's need to control care to ensure desired outcomes
- D. Inclusion of the family in the plan of care with the client's permission
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important consideration when incorporating the Latino client's cultural background into the plan of care is the inclusion of the family in the care plan with the client's permission. In Latino cultures, family plays a vital role, and there is a strong emphasis on family support during challenging times. This support can positively impact the client's health outcomes and overall well-being. Socioeconomic status, although relevant, does not carry more weight than usual in healthcare decisions. Latino clients typically focus on the present rather than the future, and they often attribute outcomes to external factors like fate or divine intervention. While the client's need for control is important, involving the family aligns more closely with the cultural values and preferences of Latino clients.
3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
4. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?
- A. Tell me more about what's bothering you.'
- B. Weren't you told about the need for the medication?'
- C. I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
- D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.
5. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
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