NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which behavior is most typical for clients with borderline personality disorder?
- A. Arrogant
- B. Eccentric
- C. Impulsive
- D. Dependent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impulsive.' Clients with borderline personality disorder often exhibit impulsive, potentially self-damaging behaviors. Arrogance is more characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder, eccentric behavior aligns with schizotypal personality disorder, and dependent behavior is typical of dependent personality disorder. Therefore, the key feature of borderline personality disorder is impulsivity.
2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
3. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
4. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
- A. Bulimia
- B. Anorexia
- C. Orthorexia
- D. Binge eating disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.
5. The nurse notes bruises on the pregnant client's face and abdomen. There are no bruises on her legs and arms. Further assessment is required to confirm which condition?
- A. Domestic abuse
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Domestic abuse is a serious concern during pregnancy as it can escalate, and the bruises on the face and abdomen may indicate physical violence towards the pregnant woman. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like an enlarged uterus for gestational age, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, not bruises. Excessive exercise typically leads to cardiovascular or pulmonary issues, not bruising. Thrombocytopenic purpura and other bleeding disorders usually present with bruises and petechiae on various body surfaces, not just limited to the face and abdomen.
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