Nursing Elites

1. Which benefit accompanies mild apprehension?

• A. Physiological functions are slowed.
• B. There is an increased alertness.
• C. Behavioral responses become automatic.
• D. Ego defense mechanisms are mobilized.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A mild level of anxiety can be beneficial because it increases alertness and focuses attention. Physiological functions are actually amplified initially, not slowed, due to mild apprehension; however, prolonged anxiety can lead to decreased function due to exhaustion. Automatic behavioral responses and ego defense mechanisms may hinder an individual's awareness rather than enhancing it, making them less beneficial compared to increased alertness.

2. A 5-year-old child has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initiative vs. guilt.' According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, children aged 3-6 years old are in the stage of initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the environment. They develop a sense of purpose and direction, but may also experience feelings of guilt if they believe their actions have caused harm or conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Trust vs. mistrust' is the first stage for infants, 'Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is the second stage for toddlers, and 'Intimacy vs. isolation' is a stage that occurs later in adulthood.

3. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

• A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
• B. A constructive method of accepting reality
• C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
• D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

4. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?

• A. Just wait here and I will notify security.
• B. I'm going to speak with the physician about getting some medication that may help you.
• C. Why is your roommate trying to kill you?
• D. Have you called the police to report this?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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