NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. A client is being admitted to the hospital because of a seizure that occurred at his home. The client has no previous history of seizures. In planning the client's nursing care, which of the following measures is most essential at the time of admission?
- A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed.
- B. Pad the bed with blankets.
- C. Inform the client about the importance of wearing a medical identification tag.
- D. Teach the client about seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most essential measure when admitting a client who had a seizure is to pad the bed with blankets (Option B). This is crucial to prevent injury in case of another seizure. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed (Option A) is incorrect as current nursing guidelines advise against putting anything in the client's mouth during a seizure. Informing the client about wearing a medical identification tag (Option C) and teaching the client about seizures (Option D) are important but are more relevant once the cause of the seizure is known. It's crucial to remember that not all seizures are classified as epilepsy.
2. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?
- A. Collect a stool sample
- B. Complete an abdominal assessment
- C. Administer an anti-nausea medication
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing action when a client reports symptoms like nausea and constipation is to complete an abdominal assessment. Assessment is crucial as it involves the systematic collection of data to understand the client's condition. By assessing the abdomen, the nurse can gather essential information to make a nursing diagnosis and develop a care plan. Collecting a stool sample (Choice A) may be necessary but comes after the assessment to confirm findings. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice C) addresses symptoms but does not address the underlying cause without a thorough assessment. Notifying the physician (Choice D) should come after the assessment to provide a complete picture of the client's condition.
3. After performing the appropriate client assessment, which of the following inferences would the nurse make?
- A. Client is hypotensive
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- C. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- D. Client relays anxiety about blood work
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An inference is the nurse's judgment or interpretation of cues gathered during an assessment. In this scenario, identifying a client as hypotensive would be an inference based on blood pressure readings that indicate lower than normal values. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation levels (choices B and C) are important cues that provide additional data but do not directly point to a specific conclusion like hypotension. The client expressing anxiety about blood work (choice D) is relevant information but relates more to their emotional state rather than a physiological assessment finding.
4. Specific gravity in urinalysis:
- A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
- B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
- C. can only be measured using a refractometer
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.
5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?
- A. PT/INR
- B. CBC
- C. PTT
- D. WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.
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