Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

2. The nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s abdomen by palpation. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Avoid palpating reportedly “tender” areas as this may cause pain.
• B. Palpate tender areas quickly to minimize patient discomfort.
• C. Initiate the assessment with deep palpation while encouraging the patient to relax and take deep breaths.
• D. Begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct approach is to begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch. This allows the nurse to first assess surface features before proceeding to deeper palpation. Starting with light palpation also helps the patient become more comfortable with being touched, creating a smoother examination experience. Palpating tender areas quickly, as suggested in choice B, can increase patient discomfort. Deep palpation, as in choice C, is typically performed after light palpation to avoid discomfort and ensure proper assessment. Avoiding palpation of tender areas first, as in choice A, helps prevent causing unnecessary pain and should be done towards the end of the assessment.

3. When measuring the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant, which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.
• B. Vital signs should be measured as frequently as in an adult.
• C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
• D. The nurse should first measure the infant's vital signs before performing a physical examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing vital signs in a 6-month-old infant, the correct order is to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. This sequence is important to avoid potential alterations in respiratory and pulse rates caused by factors like crying or discomfort. Measuring the temperature first, especially rectally, may lead to an increase in respiratory and pulse rates, which can skew the results. It is crucial to follow this specific order to obtain accurate baseline values. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Option B is incorrect as the frequency of measuring vital signs in infants differs based on individual needs rather than being consistently more frequent than in adults. Option C is not directly related to the correct sequence for measuring vital signs in infants. Option D is incorrect because the physical examination typically follows the assessment of vital signs in clinical practice.

4. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?

• A. The client is placed face-down
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
• D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.

5. A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?

• A. Chronic diseases such as hypertension do not usually cause weight loss.
• B. Weight loss is more likely due to underlying medical conditions than unhealthy eating habits.
• C. Unexplained weight loss often accompanies short-term illnesses.
• D. Weight loss is not typically caused by mental health dysfunctions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.

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