NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?
- A. Tactile hallucinations
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
- D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.
2. You have noticed that the last several patients you have cared for have had questionable blood pressure readings from their arterial lines. When checked against cuff pressures, a discrepancy has been noted, and further investigation has revealed faulty transducers. This is not the first product issue with this company. What positive step could you take to help resolve this situation?
- A. Use the old stock from a previous company
- B. Verify the cuff pressures every hour to ensure accuracy
- C. Notify the risk manager
- D. Form a peer workgroup to evaluate new products
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Forming a peer workgroup to evaluate new products would be an excellent opportunity for collaboration among peers, management, and the purchasing department. When clinicians are engaged to work toward solutions that address patient care issues, they experience more empowerment and control over their work environments. Choice A is incorrect because using old stock from a previous company does not address the root cause of the faulty transducers from the current company. Choice B is incorrect as verifying cuff pressures every hour does not directly address the issue of faulty transducers. Choice C is less effective than forming a peer workgroup as it involves only notifying the risk manager without involving a collaborative effort to resolve the product issue.
3. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?
- A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client's room
- B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness
- C. Note the client's capabilities to increase self esteem
- D. Set a "no suicide"? contract with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing a patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients but not specifically for suicide.
4. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign a staff member to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.
5. The nurse is providing disease prevention education to a 63-year-old woman with a negative family history of breast cancer. The nurse recommends the patient schedule mammograms with which frequency?
- A. Every 5 years
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every other year
- D. Once a year
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Mammograms, along with breast self-examinations and other routine tests, are key for the early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer. All major societies (WHO, ACS, USPSTF) recommend a screening mammogram every two years in women of this age at average risk of breast cancer. The recommended frequency may change if there are identified family history and significant risk factors. Choosing 'Once a year' is too frequent and not aligned with current guidelines. Opting for 'Every 5 years' or 'Every 10 years' intervals is not adequate for regular breast cancer screening and may increase the risk of cancer progression. Therefore, 'Every other year' is the most appropriate choice for this patient without a family history of breast cancer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99