NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:
- A. To tell the client this is not true; that we all have a purpose in life.
- B. To remain with the client and sit in silence; this will encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
- C. To reassure the client that you know how the client is feeling and that things will get better.
- D. To identify recent behaviors or accomplishments that demonstrate skill ability.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.
2. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
- A. Family history of heart disease
- B. Overweight
- C. Smoking
- D. Age
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.
3. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
- A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
- B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
- C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
- D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
4. What kind of preventive measures is MOST likely to be used to prevent Mary Eden from falling due to her muscular frailty?
- A. Physical therapy for muscle strengthening exercises
- B. Physical therapy for range of motion exercises
- C. Occupational therapy to help her with confusion
- D. Medications to help her sleep more
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mary Eden, due to her muscular frailty, is at risk of falling. The most effective preventive measure in this case would be physical therapy focusing on muscle strengthening exercises. Strengthening exercises can help improve her muscle tone and stability, reducing the risk of falls. While range of motion exercises may be beneficial, they may not directly address her muscular frailty and stability concerns as effectively as muscle strengthening exercises. Occupational therapy aims to help individuals with activities of daily living and functional tasks, not confusion. Medications to induce more sleep can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential side effects like dizziness or disorientation, rather than preventing falls.
5. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:
- A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
- B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
- C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.
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