NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:
- A. To tell the client this is not true; that we all have a purpose in life.
- B. To remain with the client and sit in silence; this will encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
- C. To reassure the client that you know how the client is feeling and that things will get better.
- D. To identify recent behaviors or accomplishments that demonstrate skill ability.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.
2. Which risk factor places patients and residents at the greatest risk for falls?
- A. Old age
- B. Middle age
- C. Pneumonia
- D. COPD
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Old age is a significant risk factor for falls as elderly individuals are more prone to falls due to factors like decreased balance, muscle strength, and vision. Middle age is less associated with falls compared to old age. Pneumonia and COPD are medical conditions that are not direct risk factors for falls, unlike aging which significantly increases the risk of falls.
3. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
- A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
- B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
- C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
- D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to draw a blood specimen from an adult client's central line. All of the following actions for this procedure are correct EXCEPT:
- A. Disconnect the current infusion
- B. Clean the cap with alcohol and attach a 5 cc syringe
- C. Draw 5 cc of a blood sample to discard
- D. Flush with saline after the sample
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When drawing a blood specimen from a central line, the healthcare professional should disconnect any infusions that are currently running and that could contaminate the specimen. It is important to use a minimum size of a 10 cc syringe when using a central line to avoid placing too much pressure on the catheter. Cleaning the cap with alcohol and attaching a 5 cc syringe is not appropriate as a larger syringe size should be used for this procedure. Drawing 5 cc of a blood sample to discard and flushing with saline after the sample are correct steps in the process of drawing a blood specimen from a central line.
5. Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?
- A. Administer hypotonic solutions
- B. Keep the head of the bed elevated
- C. Increase the client's core body temperature to 99.9 degrees
- D. Administer corticosteroids as ordered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.
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