the depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self esteem and self worth typified by statements such as im such a failure i cant do anything right t
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.

2. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

3. Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.

4. What consideration is important when caring for a female Muslim patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a female Muslim patient, providing long-sleeved gowns or allowing her to use her own clothing is crucial. Most Muslim women prefer to cover their whole body, even during examinations. Offering long gowns with long sleeves or allowing the patient to use her own clothing respects her cultural and religious preferences. Making eye contact is not a common practice in some Muslim cultures, so it's important to be mindful of this and respect the patient's preferences. Touching while talking may not be culturally appropriate for some Muslim patients, so it's best to avoid it unless necessary. Assigning female caregivers is often preferred to respect the patient's modesty and religious beliefs. If a male caregiver or physician needs to interact with the patient, the patient's husband may request to be present in the room.

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

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