NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A client in the emergency room enters the care area to start an IV. He finds a man sitting on the table, hunched over, and attempting to take deep breaths. He states, 'my chest hurts so much!' His wife is sitting on a chair in the corner, crying. Which of the following is the first action of the client?
- A. Bring the IV kit and quickly start an IV
- B. Assess his breathing and provide oxygen, if necessary
- C. Administer medication to control chest pain
- D. Talk with his wife and find out why she is crying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the above scenario, the first action of the nurse should be to assess the client's airway and breathing. It is crucial to address respiratory status first, as the client appears to be experiencing difficulty breathing. Providing oxygen if necessary can help support oxygenation and alleviate potential respiratory distress. Administering medication for chest pain or starting an IV can come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Talking with the client's wife, though important for emotional support, is not the priority when the client's respiratory status needs to be assessed and managed promptly.
2. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
- B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
- C. See the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.
3. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
4. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?
- A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
- B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
- C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
- D. The nurse discusses the client's health history
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.
5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
- A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
- B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
- C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access