Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?

• A. Lithotomy position
• B. Prone position
• C. Dorsal recumbent position
• D. High Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.

2. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

3. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

• A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
• B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
• C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

4. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
• B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
• C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
• D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

5. All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:

• A. All tasks to be delegated or supervised are within the nurse's scope of practice
• B. The necessary tasks require repeated assessments
• C. The nurse has adequate time to develop staff assignments
• D. Policies have been developed that govern nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.

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