NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?
- A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
- B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
- C. Positive statements precede negative statements
- D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.
2. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
3. Which technological advance is MOST likely to place you at risk for HIPAA violations?
- A. Social media
- B. Word processing programs
- C. Spreadsheets
- D. Cloud storage services (Clouds and SOEs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Social media. Social media platforms such as Facebook can significantly put you at risk for HIPAA violations. It is crucial to never share any patient-related information or comments on social media websites, as this breaches patient confidentiality and violates HIPAA regulations. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to directly lead to HIPAA violations. Word processing programs and spreadsheets are commonly used for documentation and data organization, focusing more on internal operations and not on external sharing of sensitive information that can compromise patient confidentiality. Cloud storage services (Clouds and SOEs) are designed for secure data storage and sharing within regulated environments, and HIPAA compliance can be maintained if used appropriately. However, social media's open and unsecured nature makes it a higher risk for HIPAA violations compared to the other technological advances mentioned.
4. Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis
- B. Digitalis toxicity
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. All answers are correct
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
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