Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

2. The client has a long leg cast. During discharge teaching about appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend:

• A. Isometric
• B. Range of motion
• C. Aerobic
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should recommend isometric exercises for the muscles of the casted extremity. Isometric exercises involve contracting and relaxing muscles without moving the affected part. This type of exercise helps maintain muscle strength without moving the joint, which is important for clients with immobilized extremities. Range of motion exercises involve moving the joint through its full range of motion, which may not be suitable for a client with a long leg cast. Aerobic exercises focus on increasing cardiovascular endurance and may not be appropriate for a client with a casted extremity. Isotonic exercises involve muscle contractions with movement, which may not be safe for the affected extremity in a cast.

3. According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?

• A. The right to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices
• B. The right to receive medical bills for care received
• C. The right to change personal health information
• D. An understanding that protected health information will only be used in regards to client treatments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.

4. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

5. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

• A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
• D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

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