Nursing Elites

1. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

2. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

• A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
• B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
• C. There is low-grade fever.
• D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

3. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse oximetry on the surgical unit. As part of routine interventions, the nurse turns off the exam light over the client's bed. Which of the following best describes the rationale for this intervention?

• A. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values
• B. A bright light in the client's face may cause a low pulse oximetry
• C. External light sources may cause falsely low oximetry values
• D. The client needs a dark and quiet room to recover and maintain proper oxygenation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's pulse oximetry values, the nurse should turn off any extra environmental lights that are unnecessary, including exam lights or over-bed lights. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values when the extra light interferes with the sensor of the oximeter, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect because a bright light in the client's face would not directly affect the pulse oximetry values. Choice C is incorrect as external light sources typically cause falsely high, not low, oximetry values. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for turning off the light is to prevent falsely high readings, not solely for the client's comfort.

4. You are caring for an infant who is just about 12 months old. Which assessment data is normal for the infant at this age?

• A. The infant had doubled their birth weight at twelve months.
• B. The infant had tripled their birth weight at twelve months.
• C. The mother reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight.
• D. The infant had grown � inch since last month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant has doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age. The mother's reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight and the fact that the infant had grown � inch since last month are not normal assessment data. Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to 100 mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of an inch until the infant is one year of age. Similarly, the height or length of the newborn increases an inch a month for the first 6 months and then 1/2 inch a month until the infant is 1 year of age.

5. In which of the following examples would informed consent not be required?

• A. A patient is apprehensive about an upcoming surgery and chooses not to learn of the risks involved with the procedure.
• B. A child is rushed to the Emergency Room after falling from a third-story window.
• C. An adult in a coma in a mental health institution with no listed next of kin.
• D. Informed consent is not required in any of the above examples.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further harm or save a life, such as in option B where a child is rushed to the Emergency Room after a fall, informed consent may be waived to provide prompt care. In option A, though the patient is apprehensive about surgery and chooses not to learn the risks, informed consent is not required as it is the patient's right to refuse information. In option C, when an adult is in a coma with no next of kin listed, decisions may be made in the patient's best interest following legal and ethical guidelines. Therefore, informed consent is not needed in any of the scenarios presented.

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