becky is a 17 year old type i diabetic who has been admitted for her third episode of diabetic ketoacidosis dka since being diagnosed last year she st

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. Becky is a 17-year-old type I diabetic who has been admitted for her third episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) since being diagnosed last year. She states that she hates feeling different from her friends and refuses to take her insulin as recommended. What would be the most helpful action for Becky?

A. Scolding her for not taking her insulin
B. Recommending that she use an insulin pump
C. Contacting the local support group for diabetic teens
D. Telling her parents they must provide more strict oversight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contacting the local support group for diabetic teens would be the most helpful action for Becky. By reaching out to see if another diabetic teenager could provide support, Becky would have the opportunity to connect with someone in her peer group who faces similar challenges. This connection can help reduce her sense of isolation and the feeling of being 'different.' Choice A, 'Scolding her for not taking her insulin,' is inappropriate and could further alienate Becky. It does not address the underlying emotional issues driving her behavior. Choice B, 'Recommending that she use an insulin pump,' does not directly address Becky's emotional struggle with feeling different from her friends. While an insulin pump may be a helpful tool, it does not tackle the root cause of her non-compliance. Choice D, 'Telling her parents they must provide more strict oversight,' focuses on imposing stricter control without addressing Becky's emotional needs or offering peer support, which may not be effective in improving her insulin adherence in the long term.

2. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
C. There is low-grade fever.
D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

3. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

4. Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?

A. Administer hypotonic solutions
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated
C. Increase the client's core body temperature to 99.9 degrees
D. Administer corticosteroids as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.

5. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
B. Give the client Cogentin
C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.