Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the interview at this point and resume later when the client is better able to concentrate
• B. Ask the client, 'Are you seeing something on the ceiling?'
• C. Tell the client, 'You seem to be looking at something on the ceiling. I see something there, too.'
• D. Continue the interview without commenting on the client's behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.

2. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child for symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which assessment finding should lead the nurse to question the diagnosis?

• A. Inability to react appropriately to social cues
• B. Engages in repetitive behaviors
• C. Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age
• D. Displays self-destructive behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age.' Children with autism spectrum disorder typically struggle with language and communication skills, so comprehending language well beyond their age level would not align with the diagnosis of ASD. This finding could indicate other developmental strengths or delays. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ASD - the inability to react appropriately to social cues, engaging in repetitive behaviors, and displaying self-destructive behavior are typical manifestations of autism spectrum disorder.

3. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

• A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
• B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
• D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.

4. Sinusitis is caused by:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Fungus
• C. Virus
• D. Any of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sinusitis can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. While bacterial infections are the most common cause, viral or fungal infections can also lead to sinusitis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Any of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they only represent individual causes of sinusitis, whereas choice D encompasses all possible causes.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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