mr k is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours which of the following is a prio
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

2. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.

3. Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line. Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.

4. What kind of preventive measures is MOST likely to be used to prevent Mary Eden from falling due to her muscular frailty?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mary Eden, due to her muscular frailty, is at risk of falling. The most effective preventive measure in this case would be physical therapy focusing on muscle strengthening exercises. Strengthening exercises can help improve her muscle tone and stability, reducing the risk of falls. While range of motion exercises may be beneficial, they may not directly address her muscular frailty and stability concerns as effectively as muscle strengthening exercises. Occupational therapy aims to help individuals with activities of daily living and functional tasks, not confusion. Medications to induce more sleep can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential side effects like dizziness or disorientation, rather than preventing falls.

5. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

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