mr k is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours which of the following is a prio
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

2. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

3. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).

4. Because of budget cuts in the hospital, the nursing manager informs the staff that they must either rotate to other units more often or take their turns staying home from work. Which principle is this nurse manager demonstrating?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Veracity involves truth-telling, even in challenging situations. In this scenario, the nurse manager is being transparent about the need for staff to rotate units or take turns staying home due to budget cuts. This allows the staff to make informed decisions about their work schedules and potential impact on their pay and work areas. Option A, Justice, does not apply as the focus is on communication and transparency, not fairness. Option B, Paternalism, does not fit as it involves decisions made for others' well-being without their input, which is not the case here. Option D, Fraternity, pertains to unity among individuals, which is not the principle demonstrated by the nurse manager in this situation.

5. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

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