NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
- A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
- B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
- C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
- D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.
2. After Brandon is stabilized following his second myocardial infarction due to cocaine use, what collaborative process should begin to connect him with additional resources?
- A. Law enforcement for further prevention
- B. Social services for rehab
- C. Narcotics Anonymous
- D. Financial counselor to apply for assistance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following stabilization, it is essential to connect Brandon with additional resources to address his addiction. Social services are a crucial collaborative partner in this situation because they have access to community resources that can support Brandon's rehabilitation needs. While law enforcement may be involved in certain situations, their primary role is not to provide rehabilitation services. Narcotics Anonymous is a valuable support group but does not offer the comprehensive services that social services for rehab can provide. A financial counselor may be beneficial for addressing financial concerns, but the priority at this stage is to address Brandon's addiction through appropriate rehabilitation services.
3. Upon admission to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center, what is the primary action of the nurse?
- A. Collect and organize documents for the client's medical record
- B. Prepare the client's identification bracelet
- C. Identify pertinent health history data and current needs and limitations
- D. Gather the client's valuables and secure them in a locked container
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is admitted to a stroke care unit in a rehabilitation center, the nurse's initial priority is to assess the client. This assessment includes identifying relevant health history data that may impact the client's care. By recognizing the client's current needs and limitations, the nurse can develop a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition. This information is crucial for generating a nursing diagnosis and establishing appropriate care outcomes. While collecting and organizing documents for the medical record, preparing identification bracelets, and securing valuables are important tasks, they are not the primary actions that directly influence the client's immediate care upon admission.
4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
5. Which of the following is an example of libel?
- A. A client overhears a nurse telling her assistant that he is 'too high maintenance.'
- B. A client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart.
- C. A nurse fails to notify a physician when a client's hemoglobin level is 8.1 gm/dL.
- D. A nurse administers narcotic pain medication to a client in pain but does not have an order.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Libel involves making defamatory statements against another person in written form. These statements can harm the person's reputation or feelings. In this scenario, the correct answer is when a client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart. This constitutes libel because the negative remarks are written down and can potentially damage the client's reputation. Choices A, C, and D do not involve libel. Choice A describes a verbal statement, not written, so it does not constitute libel. Choice C involves a failure to notify a physician, which is a different issue unrelated to libel. Choice D pertains to administering medication without an order, which is a matter of improper practice rather than libel.
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