the nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delive
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.

2. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

3. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

5. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.

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