Nursing Elites

1. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Constipation
• D. A prominent U wave on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

2. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

3. A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?

• A. Contain histamine and provide protection during allergic reactions
• B. Are involved in phagocytosis
• C. Provide protection and immunity against foreign substances
• D. Carry hemoglobin and oxygen to body tissues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.

4. A victim of a gunshot wound to the abdomen has been admitted to the hospital, accompanied by a police officer. When questioned, the officer states that the patient is a suspect in a homicide, which occurred as part of the same incident. A small child was killed as the result of a stray bullet. The patient is combative, yells that he's in pain and demands medication. What is your most appropriate response?

• A. Tell him you'll take care of him after your other patients
• B. Reinforce restraints
• C. Perform a pain assessment and administer pain medication
• D. Ask the officer for more details of the incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate and caring response is to perform a pain assessment and administer the pain medication that has been ordered. Regardless of personal feelings about any given situation, the nurse's responsibility is to provide unbiased, appropriate, and supportive care, as stated in the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics. Choice A is not appropriate as it disregards the patient's immediate need for pain relief. Choice B may escalate the situation and is not the priority in this case. Choice D is not the immediate action needed to address the patient's pain and distress.

5. A nurse caring for a pediatric client shows little concern when the parents attempt to speak with her about their daughter's illness. When approached by the nurse manager about her behavior, the nurse responds by saying, 'I don't want to get involved. It doesn't matter what I do anyway; my work does not make much of a difference.' This nurse is exhibiting which of the following characteristics?

• A. Objectivity
• B. Depersonalization
• C. Procrastination
• D. Disruption

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Depersonalization.' A nurse who distances themselves from clients to avoid emotional involvement is displaying depersonalization. This behavior is often seen in nurses experiencing burnout due to stress. Depersonalization can stem from low morale, moral distress, and may serve as a defense mechanism to cope with stress and emotional exhaustion. It is a way to shield oneself from feeling overwhelmed by the burdens of caring for others. Choice A, 'Objectivity,' is incorrect because objectivity involves maintaining a neutral and unbiased perspective, which is not the case here. Choice C, 'Procrastination,' is incorrect as it refers to delaying tasks, not emotional distancing. Choice D, 'Disruption,' is irrelevant to the scenario described and does not align with the nurse's behavior of detachment and lack of concern.

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