the purpose of performing quality control is to

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

2. Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?

A. A nurse feels guilty when she administers essential medication that causes a client to have nausea and vomiting
B. A nurse is called to testify in court about a client she cared for three years ago
C. A nurse feels guilty for working overtime
D. A nurse faces a conflict with a colleague over patient care decisions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.

3. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:

A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

A. Unequal leg length
B. Limited adduction
C. Diminished femoral pulses
D. Symmetrical gluteal folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:

A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
B. The client is able to take a shower
C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.