Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

• A. Tactile hallucinations
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
• D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.

2. Which risk factor places patients and residents at the greatest risk for falls?

• A. Old age
• B. Middle age
• C. Pneumonia
• D. COPD

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Old age is a significant risk factor for falls as elderly individuals are more prone to falls due to factors like decreased balance, muscle strength, and vision. Middle age is less associated with falls compared to old age. Pneumonia and COPD are medical conditions that are not direct risk factors for falls, unlike aging which significantly increases the risk of falls.

3. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

5. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

• A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
• B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
• C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
• D. Assign a staff member to be with the client at all times to help maintain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.

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