Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

• A. Tactile hallucinations
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
• D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.

2. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse oximetry on the surgical unit. As part of routine interventions, the nurse turns off the exam light over the client's bed. Which of the following best describes the rationale for this intervention?

• A. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values
• B. A bright light in the client's face may cause a low pulse oximetry
• C. External light sources may cause falsely low oximetry values
• D. The client needs a dark and quiet room to recover and maintain proper oxygenation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's pulse oximetry values, the nurse should turn off any extra environmental lights that are unnecessary, including exam lights or over-bed lights. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values when the extra light interferes with the sensor of the oximeter, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect because a bright light in the client's face would not directly affect the pulse oximetry values. Choice C is incorrect as external light sources typically cause falsely high, not low, oximetry values. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for turning off the light is to prevent falsely high readings, not solely for the client's comfort.

4. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8�F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
• B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
• C. Administer oxygen therapy
• D. Decrease his IV rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.

5. Which of the following is an example of a living will?

• A. A client's son has been appointed to make his healthcare decisions if he becomes incapacitated
• B. A client has designated which of his children will receive his home and property before he dies
• C. A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
• D. A client designates what type of burial or cremation services he would want after his death

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.

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