Nursing Elites

1. A client on an acute mental health unit reports hearing voices that are stating, "kill your doctor"?. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy on the unit.
• B. Initiate one-to-one observation of the client.
• C. Focus the client on reality.
• D. Notify the provider of the client's statement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client experiences command hallucinations, such as being told to harm someone, the priority is ensuring the safety of the client and others. Initiating one-to-one observation allows for close monitoring and intervention to prevent harm. Encouraging participation in group therapy may not be appropriate or safe at this time. Focusing the client on reality may not be effective when experiencing hallucinations, and notifying the provider should come after immediate safety measures have been taken.

2. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client suffering from a fever?

• A. Avoid withholding food from the client
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Provide oxygen
• D. All answers are correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate nursing intervention for a client suffering from a fever is to increase the client's fluid intake. A fever can elevate the body's metabolism, leading to increased breathing and heart workload. This can result in fluid loss due to heightened respiration and sweating. Moreover, the augmented heart workload may necessitate more oxygen to maintain tissue perfusion. Providing oxygen and increasing fluid intake help meet the body's heightened demands during a fever. Withholding food from the client is inappropriate as proper nutrition is crucial for recovery, and providing oxygen alone may not address the fluid and metabolic demands associated with fever. Therefore, the correct choice is to increase the client's fluid intake.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

5. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?

• A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
• B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
• C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
• D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain

Similar Questions