Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma is being admitted for breathing difficulties. His arterial blood gas results are pH 7.26, PCO2 49, PaO2 90, and HCO3- 21. Which of the following best describes this condition?

• A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
• B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
• C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
• D. Compensated metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.26 and a PCO2 of 49, both of which are abnormal. A pH below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 indicates acidosis. The elevated PCO2 of 49 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary issue. The normal range for PCO2 is 35-45 mmHg, so a value of 49 indicates the retention of excess CO2, leading to acidosis. The low HCO3- level of 21 also supports the presence of metabolic acidosis; however, the primary abnormality is respiratory, making this an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.' Choice B, 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect because the client's pH is acidic, not alkalotic. Additionally, there is no compensation occurring for the primary respiratory acidosis indicated by the elevated PCO2. Choice C, 'Uncompensated metabolic acidosis,' is incorrect because while the HCO3- level is low, the primary issue indicated by the elevated PCO2 is respiratory acidosis. Choice D, 'Compensated metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect since the arterial blood gas results do not support a metabolic alkalosis. The low HCO3- level would typically be seen in metabolic acidosis, but in this case, the primary issue is respiratory acidosis.

2. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?

• A. Observe for confusion
• B. Monitor respiratory status
• C. Reorient to time, place, and person
• D. Document the client's response to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.

3. Which technological advance is MOST likely to place you at risk for HIPAA violations?

• A. Social media
• B. Word processing programs
• C. Spreadsheets
• D. Cloud storage services (Clouds and SOEs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Social media. Social media platforms such as Facebook can significantly put you at risk for HIPAA violations. It is crucial to never share any patient-related information or comments on social media websites, as this breaches patient confidentiality and violates HIPAA regulations. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to directly lead to HIPAA violations. Word processing programs and spreadsheets are commonly used for documentation and data organization, focusing more on internal operations and not on external sharing of sensitive information that can compromise patient confidentiality. Cloud storage services (Clouds and SOEs) are designed for secure data storage and sharing within regulated environments, and HIPAA compliance can be maintained if used appropriately. However, social media's open and unsecured nature makes it a higher risk for HIPAA violations compared to the other technological advances mentioned.

4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

5. Which of the following white blood cells is the smallest and can be involved in humoral immunity?

• A. Lymphocyte
• B. Monocyte
• C. Basophil
• D. Erythrocyte

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lymphocyte.' Lymphocytes are the smallest type of white blood cells and play a crucial role in humoral immunity by producing antibodies. Monocytes are actually the largest white blood cells and are involved in phagocytosis rather than humoral immunity. Basophils are a type of granulocyte involved in allergic reactions, and erythrocytes are red blood cells responsible for oxygen transport, not part of the immune system.

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