Nursing Elites

1. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

2. An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?

• A. Primary care
• B. Secondary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

• A. You should explain that fetal lie is where the fetus's presenting part is within the birth canal during labor, among other information about the other assessments.
• B. You should explain that fetal presentation is the relationship of the fetus's spine to the mother's spine, among other information about the other assessments.
• C. You should explain that fetal attitude is the relationship of the fetus's presenting part to the anterior, posterior, right, or left side of the mother's pelvis, among other information about the other assessments.
• D. You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines, among other information about the other assessments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

5. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?

• A. rheumatoid arthritis
• B. gouty arthritis
• C. dorsiflexion
• D. joint deformity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.

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