the nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion a participant asks about chiropractic treatment for il
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

2. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.

3. Ruth is a 72-year-old patient who has been upset and crying all morning. When asked why she is upset, she turns toward the wall in silence. What collaborative process may be helpful in caring for this patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collaborating with the patient care technician is an appropriate approach in this scenario. Patient care technicians and nurses' aides often provide direct care to patients, developing a closer relationship with them. Patients may feel more comfortable sharing their feelings with these caregivers compared to other healthcare professionals. In this situation, Ruth's distress appears more emotional than spiritual, making it more suitable to speak with someone directly involved in her care. Calling the chaplain (Choice B) might not directly address Ruth's immediate emotional needs as it could focus more on spiritual support. Involving the social worker (Choice C) could help address underlying emotional or social issues, but speaking with the patient care technician is a more direct and immediate step to assess and provide initial support. Calling the patient's husband (Choice D) may not address Ruth's immediate emotional distress and may not be appropriate without understanding the root cause of her upset.

4. Albert B. is incontinent of urine. He also wears glasses and hearing aids. His ____________lead(s) to his risk for falls.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Albert B. is at risk for falls due to two factors: his incontinence and his loss of vision. Loss of vision significantly impairs one's ability to navigate and avoid obstacles, thereby increasing the risk of falls. While incontinence is a risk factor for falls, the primary concern in this case is the loss of vision since it directly affects balance and safety. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of vision.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the key factor of impaired vision leading to the risk of falls.

5. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

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