Nursing Elites

1. At the beginning of her shift in a long-term care facility, which of the following clients should a nurse check on first?

• A. A 91-year-old man who needs help eating breakfast
• B. An 86-year-old man who has been incontinent in his bed
• C. An 82-year-old woman who needs IV antibiotics
• D. A 75-year-old man who is recovering from an injury and needs an ice pack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing care in a long-term care facility, the nurse must consider tasks that require their immediate attention and cannot be delegated. Administering IV antibiotics is a critical nursing task that only the nurse can perform, ensuring the timely and correct delivery of medication to the patient. While assisting with breakfast, managing incontinence, and providing an ice pack are important, these tasks can be delegated to other healthcare team members, allowing the nurse to address the client needing IV antibiotics first to ensure effective treatment and patient safety.

2. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

• A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
• B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
• C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
• D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. A nurse is assisting a pregnant client who is having an amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates the correct teaching for this procedure?

• A. I'm going to help you lie lat on your back for this."
• B. Don't worry, I'm sure everything will be all right."
• C. I will need to help you remove your shirt for this procedure."
• D. Now that the procedure is inished, I will put a small bandage over the puncture site."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis is performed to draw amniotic luid from the sac around the fetus during pregnancy. It may be analyzed for certain disorders or complications associated with pregnancy. Following the procedure, the nurse should wash the client's abdomen and place a small bandage over the puncture site

5. You are caring for a Hispanic patient who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. A member of the surgery staff is in a hurry when she visits the patient to obtain surgical consent. You know that the patient speaks limited English and can see that he does not really understand what's being said. What is the most appropriate next action?

• A. Call a family member to interpret
• B. Consult the hospital translator to assist
• C. Allow the consent to be signed
• D. Ask the staff member to come back later

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting the hospital translator is the most reliable means of ensuring accuracy in the information that the patient is receiving. Family members can be helpful, but they may have difficulty understanding the medical procedures well enough to explain them accurately and may misinterpret the message. Relying on family members could lead to misunderstandings or miscommunication. Allowing the consent to be signed without ensuring the patient's full understanding could pose risks to the patient's well-being. Asking the staff member to come back later delays the essential communication process needed before surgery. Therefore, consulting the hospital translator is the best course of action to ensure clear and accurate communication, especially in critical healthcare decisions like surgical consent.

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