what ethical principle has led to the need for informed consent

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. What ethical principle has led to the need for informed consent?

A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Fidelity
D. Beneficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomy is the ethical principle that emphasizes an individual's right to make their own decisions if they are mentally competent. Informed consent is a direct result of this principle, as it ensures that patients are fully informed before agreeing to any medical intervention. Autonomy is crucial in healthcare as it respects patients' rights and promotes self-determination. Justice, fidelity, and beneficence are important ethical principles in healthcare, but they do not directly lead to the need for informed consent. Justice focuses on fairness and equal treatment, fidelity on trustworthiness and loyalty, and beneficence on doing good for the patient's benefit.

2. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

3. Which of the following is an example of a living will?

A. A client's son has been appointed to make his healthcare decisions if he becomes incapacitated
B. A client has designated which of his children will receive his home and property before he dies
C. A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
D. A client designates what type of burial or cremation services he would want after his death

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Biot's respirations
D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?

A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. gouty arthritis
C. dorsiflexion
D. joint deformity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.