Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

2. While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?

• A. Abdominal respirations
• B. Inspiratory grunt
• C. Nasal flaring
• D. Cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.

3. In which of the following examples would informed consent not be required?

• A. A patient is apprehensive about an upcoming surgery and chooses not to learn of the risks involved with the procedure.
• B. A child is rushed to the Emergency Room after falling from a third-story window.
• C. An adult in a coma in a mental health institution with no listed next of kin.
• D. Informed consent is not required in any of the above examples.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further harm or save a life, such as in option B where a child is rushed to the Emergency Room after a fall, informed consent may be waived to provide prompt care. In option A, though the patient is apprehensive about surgery and chooses not to learn the risks, informed consent is not required as it is the patient's right to refuse information. In option C, when an adult is in a coma with no next of kin listed, decisions may be made in the patient's best interest following legal and ethical guidelines. Therefore, informed consent is not needed in any of the scenarios presented.

4. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

• A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
• B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
• D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.

5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

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