Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is asked by a physician to speak to a colleague about their unprofessional behavior in front of a client but chooses not to confront the colleague and avoids the physician the next day, what type of conflict resolution is the nurse exhibiting?

• A. Accommodation
• B. Competition
• C. Avoidance
• D. Negotiation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is exhibiting the conflict resolution strategy of avoidance. Avoidance involves ignoring the problem in the hope that it will go away on its own. In this scenario, the nurse avoids confronting the colleague and stays away from the physician, which does not address the issue directly. While avoidance may provide time for others to gain insight into the situation, it typically does not lead to a resolution of the underlying problems. Accommodation (A) involves yielding to the wishes of others, competition (B) entails pursuing one's own concerns at the expense of others, and negotiation (D) involves seeking a mutually agreeable solution through communication and compromise, none of which are demonstrated by the nurse in this situation.

2. Which of the following is an example of whistle-blowing?

• A. A nurse contacts administration about a colleague who takes supplies to use for a mission trip
• B. A client sues a nurse because she failed to call the physician about his wound infection
• C. A nursing assistant calls for help when a client falls out of bed
• D. A client developed a sacral pressure ulcer when he was not turned in bed for over four hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Whistle-blowing involves notifying administration or a supervisor about unethical or illegal activities. In this scenario, the nurse reporting a colleague taking supplies for personal use is an example of whistle-blowing as it involves reporting behavior that is dishonest and potentially harmful. Choices B, C, and D do not represent whistle-blowing. Choice B involves a legal action by a client against a nurse, choice C is a situation where immediate care is provided, and choice D is a case of neglect that should have been prevented.

3. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

4. When a mother is inquiring about her child's ability to potty train, what is the most critical aspect of toilet training?

• A. The age of the child
• B. The child's ability to understand instructions
• C. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child
• D. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical aspect of toilet training is the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. While age can play a role, it is not the sole determining factor. Understanding instructions is important but may not be the most critical aspect. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement can be helpful, but without considering the child's abilities, it may not lead to successful potty training.

5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

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