Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is asked by a physician to speak to a colleague about their unprofessional behavior in front of a client but chooses not to confront the colleague and avoids the physician the next day, what type of conflict resolution is the nurse exhibiting?

• A. Accommodation
• B. Competition
• C. Avoidance
• D. Negotiation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is exhibiting the conflict resolution strategy of avoidance. Avoidance involves ignoring the problem in the hope that it will go away on its own. In this scenario, the nurse avoids confronting the colleague and stays away from the physician, which does not address the issue directly. While avoidance may provide time for others to gain insight into the situation, it typically does not lead to a resolution of the underlying problems. Accommodation (A) involves yielding to the wishes of others, competition (B) entails pursuing one's own concerns at the expense of others, and negotiation (D) involves seeking a mutually agreeable solution through communication and compromise, none of which are demonstrated by the nurse in this situation.

2. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

3. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
• B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
• C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
• D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Bizarre behaviors
• C. Ideas of reference
• D. Motivation for activities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.

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