NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for:
- A. 10 years
- B. Forever
- C. Until the age of majority
- D. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Forever.' Maintaining patients' charts indefinitely ensures comprehensive legal protection by having all relevant information available in case of litigation or if patient history needs to be referenced in the future. Choice A, '10 years,' may not be sufficient to cover the entire period within which legal issues may arise. Choice C, 'Until the age of majority,' is not ideal as legal matters may extend beyond this age limit. Choice D, '2 years after the patient was last seen in the office,' is inadequate as legal actions can occur beyond this timeframe, necessitating the need for long-term retention of patient charts.
2. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
3. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
- B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
- C. See the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.
4. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:
- A. Auditory hallucinations
- B. Bizarre behaviors
- C. Ideas of reference
- D. Motivation for activities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.
5. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
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