NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Elderly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly ___________.
- A. drink more coffee and tea
- B. have more stomach mucus production
- C. have more saliva
- D. have less sense of thirst
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elderly patients are prone to dehydration because they have a lower and diminished sense of thirst. This reduced sensation of thirst makes them less likely to drink an adequate amount of fluids, leading to dehydration. While it is true that elderly individuals may also have changes such as decreased stomach mucus production and saliva production, these factors do not directly contribute to dehydration. Drinking more coffee and tea, as mentioned in choice A, is not a consistent behavior among all elderly individuals and is not a primary reason for their increased risk of dehydration.
2. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the interview at this point and resume later when the client is better able to concentrate
- B. Ask the client, 'Are you seeing something on the ceiling?'
- C. Tell the client, 'You seem to be looking at something on the ceiling. I see something there, too.'
- D. Continue the interview without commenting on the client's behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.
3. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
- A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
- D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
- C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
- D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
5. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
- B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
- C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
- D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.
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