Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a living will?

• A. A client's son has been appointed to make his healthcare decisions if he becomes incapacitated
• B. A client has designated which of his children will receive his home and property before he dies
• C. A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
• D. A client designates what type of burial or cremation services he would want after his death

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.

2. Family members of a patient ask repeated questions about the monitors and various readings in the patient's room. What is the most supportive response to their questions?

• A. Inform them that you can't take the time to answer all their questions
• B. Provide detailed explanations for each device
• C. Tell them it's too technical to explain
• D. Provide an overview and encourage them to spend their time with the patient

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Addressing the family's questions and providing an overview of information validates their concerns and addresses their requests. Limiting details and encouraging them to focus on the patient helps to avoid anxiety that could be created by focusing on values that should be interpreted in the context of the patient's situation by professionals with experience with such data. It also encourages them to provide what they uniquely have to offer: a comforting presence for their loved one. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the family's needs. Choice B may overwhelm the family with unnecessary technical information. Choice C is unhelpful as it disregards the family's genuine interest and concern. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response as it balances providing information while guiding the family to focus on supporting the patient.

3. Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

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