Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?

• A. Constipation
• B. Polyuria
• C. Rash
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is a crucial early indication of lithium toxicity. It results from the drug's effect on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This is a significant symptom to monitor as it can indicate potential toxicity. Constipation, rash, and tinnitus are not typically associated with early indications of lithium toxicity. Constipation is more commonly seen as a side effect of some medications, while rash and tinnitus are not specific indicators of lithium toxicity.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

3. What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?

• A. What diagnosis did the physician make for this client?
• B. What is the issue that I can solve for this client?
• C. What physician orders will resolve this issue?
• D. What underlying disease does this client have?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.

4. During an adolescent examination, the nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?

• A. Spinal flexibility
• B. Leg length disparity
• C. Hypostatic blood pressure
• D. Scoliosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is scoliosis. During the assessment for scoliosis, the nurse asks the adolescent to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely to observe for any lateral deviation of the spine, uneven rib levels, or asymmetry. This assessment is a routine part of an adolescent examination, especially in females, as scoliosis is more common in this population. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Spinal flexibility is usually assessed through different maneuvers, leg length disparity is evaluated by measuring the length of the legs, and hypostatic blood pressure refers to a decrease in blood pressure due to immobility.

5. A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:

• A. Optimizing
• B. Satisficing
• C. Brainstorming
• D. Centralizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.

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