Nursing Elites

1. A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic charting program for the nursing staff to use. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using electronic charting?

• A. The information is more likely to be lost or used inappropriately.
• B. Any provider in the unit can have access to the client's medical records.
• C. The system diminishes communication between nurses and providers.
• D. The program may be confusing and difficult to implement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant disadvantage of implementing a new electronic charting program is the potential for complexity and difficulty in implementation. Introducing a new system requires time and education for staff to adapt and use it appropriately. Users may experience confusion as they learn to navigate the new charting techniques, which can impact workflow efficiency and accuracy. Option A is incorrect because electronic charting systems are designed to enhance data security and integrity, reducing the risk of information being lost or misused. Option B is incorrect as access control mechanisms can restrict who can view specific patient records. Option C is incorrect as electronic charting systems often facilitate communication between healthcare providers by providing real-time access to patient information.

2. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
• B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
• C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
• D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

3. A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?

• A. Spasms of the tongue and face
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.

4. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:

• A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
• B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
• C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.

5. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

• A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
• B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
• C. There is low-grade fever.
• D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

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