NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of their ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place, and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes their mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation?
- A. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes.
- B. Have the patient sign a form stating that they are refusing consent. If they refuse to sign, do not proceed with the procedure.
- C. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Do not proceed with the procedure.
- D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action to avoid litigation is to respect the patient's right to refuse treatment, especially when changing their mind before the procedure starts. By not proceeding with the treatment, documenting the patient's refusal, and having the patient sign a refusal to consent form, you are following proper ethical and legal procedures. If the patient refuses to sign the form, having a witness available to sign further strengthens the documentation of the patient's decision. This approach ensures that the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their healthcare are respected. Choices A, B, and C do not prioritize the patient's right to refuse treatment and could potentially lead to legal issues if treatment is carried out against the patient's wishes.
2. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
- A. The client is pregnant
- B. The client has hypertension
- C. The client is in renal failure
- D. The client has pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
3. Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?
- A. It's a relief your children weren't left without a mother.
- B. What were you thinking?
- C. We're here to help patients who value life.
- D. I know life can be difficult. We're here to help you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.
4. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?
- A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
- B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
- C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
- D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain
5. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?
- A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
- B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
- C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
- D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.
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