after a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure the patient asks many questions the physician answers all of the questions to the best of her abili

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of their ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place, and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes their mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation?

A. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes.
B. Have the patient sign a form stating that they are refusing consent. If they refuse to sign, do not proceed with the procedure.
C. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Do not proceed with the procedure.
D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action to avoid litigation is to respect the patient's right to refuse treatment, especially when changing their mind before the procedure starts. By not proceeding with the treatment, documenting the patient's refusal, and having the patient sign a refusal to consent form, you are following proper ethical and legal procedures. If the patient refuses to sign the form, having a witness available to sign further strengthens the documentation of the patient's decision. This approach ensures that the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their healthcare are respected. Choices A, B, and C do not prioritize the patient's right to refuse treatment and could potentially lead to legal issues if treatment is carried out against the patient's wishes.

2. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

A. You should explain that fetal lie is where the fetus's presenting part is within the birth canal during labor, among other information about the other assessments.
B. You should explain that fetal presentation is the relationship of the fetus's spine to the mother's spine, among other information about the other assessments.
C. You should explain that fetal attitude is the relationship of the fetus's presenting part to the anterior, posterior, right, or left side of the mother's pelvis, among other information about the other assessments.
D. You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines, among other information about the other assessments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

3. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

4. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

5. Asepsis is defined as ________________.

A. the absence of all microorganisms
B. the absence of disease-causing germs
C. a urinary infection
D. a pathogenic infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asepsis is defined as the absence of disease-causing germs. It is surgical asepsis that is defined as the absence of all microorganisms, including spores. A pathogenic infection is an invasion of the body by a pathogen, or disease-causing germ, and a urinary infection is only one type of infection.