NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A nurse walks into a client's room to find the nursing assistant yelling, 'Sit back down or I won't help you eat, and then you will starve!' This type of behavior is known as:
- A. Psychological abuse
- B. Abandonment
- C. Material exploitation
- D. Physical abuse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psychological abuse. This behavior is classified as psychological abuse, which harms another person through words or threats. The nursing assistant's actions of yelling, making threats, and using food as a form of control fall under psychological abuse. Abandonment (choice B) refers to deserting or leaving a client without care, which is not the case in the scenario. Material exploitation (choice C) involves taking advantage of a person's assets or resources for personal gain, which is not evident here. Physical abuse (choice D) involves causing physical harm, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for the behavior described in the scenario is psychological abuse.
2. Which of the following is an example of low health literacy skills?
- A. A nurse is unable to explain the dose, indications, side effects, and structural formula of carbamazepine
- B. A client cannot read an admission form to sign it
- C. A nurse cannot calculate the correct IV rate for Ringer's lactate
- D. A nurse is unable to explain the dose, indications, side effects, and structural formula of carbamazepine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low health literacy skills are exemplified by an individual's inability to comprehend health-related information. In this scenario, a client's inability to read an admission form to sign it indicates low health literacy. This lack of understanding can hinder their ability to make informed decisions about their healthcare. The other choices involve healthcare professionals and their knowledge or skills, not the health literacy of individuals seeking care.
3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
- A. Pulmonary embolectomy
- B. Vena caval interruption
- C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
- D. Thrombolytic therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.
4. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
- A. 5 mm/hr
- B. 12 mm/hr
- C. 28 mm/hr
- D. 40 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.
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