NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
- A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
- B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
- C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
- D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.
2. Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
- A. Call the supervisor and file a complaint against the physical therapy department
- B. Contact the physician to notify him that the orders were not carried out
- C. Assess the client's activity level by assisting with ambulation using a gait belt
- D. Contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.
3. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
- B. Give the client Cogentin
- C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
- D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
4. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?
- A. Options for smoking cessation
- B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
- C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
- D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.
5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
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