Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?

• A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
• B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
• C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
• D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.

2. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?

• A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
• B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
• C. The Endocrine Theory
• D. The Rate of Living Theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.

3. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?

• A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client's room
• B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness
• C. Note the client's capabilities to increase self esteem
• D. Set a "no suicide"? contract with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing a patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients but not specifically for suicide.

4. Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?

• A. It's a relief your children weren't left without a mother.
• B. What were you thinking?
• C. We're here to help patients who value life.
• D. I know life can be difficult. We're here to help you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.

5. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

Similar Questions