Nursing Elites

1. A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?

• A. Manipulation
• B. Facilitation
• C. Co-optation
• D. Coercion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'

2. If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Justice
• D. Fidelity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.

3. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

4. Asepsis is defined as ________________.

• A. the absence of all microorganisms
• B. the absence of disease-causing germs
• C. a urinary infection
• D. a pathogenic infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asepsis is defined as the absence of disease-causing germs. It is surgical asepsis that is defined as the absence of all microorganisms, including spores. A pathogenic infection is an invasion of the body by a pathogen, or disease-causing germ, and a urinary infection is only one type of infection.

5. How do technological advances relate to HIPAA?

• A. Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.
• B. Computers facilitate information sharing.
• C. Computer screens should be visible only to authorized personnel.
• D. Technology enhances HIPAA confidentiality.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations. For instance, leaving a computer screen unattended and visible to unauthorized individuals can result in breaches of patient confidentiality, leading to HIPAA violations. While computers can indeed aid in sharing information, this is not directly related to HIPAA compliance. Ensuring that computer screens are only visible to authorized personnel is a good practice, but it does not address the broader risks and challenges posed by technological advancements in maintaining HIPAA compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is that technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.

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