Nursing Elites

1. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

2. An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:

• A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
• B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
• C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
• D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.

3. A victim of a gunshot wound to the abdomen has been admitted to the hospital, accompanied by a police officer. When questioned, the officer states that the patient is a suspect in a homicide, which occurred as part of the same incident. A small child was killed as the result of a stray bullet. The patient is combative, yells that he's in pain and demands medication. What is your most appropriate response?

• A. Tell him you'll take care of him after your other patients
• B. Reinforce restraints
• C. Perform a pain assessment and administer pain medication
• D. Ask the officer for more details of the incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate and caring response is to perform a pain assessment and administer the pain medication that has been ordered. Regardless of personal feelings about any given situation, the nurse's responsibility is to provide unbiased, appropriate, and supportive care, as stated in the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics. Choice A is not appropriate as it disregards the patient's immediate need for pain relief. Choice B may escalate the situation and is not the priority in this case. Choice D is not the immediate action needed to address the patient's pain and distress.

4. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?

• A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
• B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
• C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
• D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.

5. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

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