Nursing Elites

1. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

2. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

• A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
• B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
• C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
• D. Assign staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?

• A. Lithotomy position
• B. Prone position
• C. Dorsal recumbent position
• D. High Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.

4. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

• A. A normal reading
• B. An abnormally low reading
• C. An abnormally high reading
• D. A fluctuating reading

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

5. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

• A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
• B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
• D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.

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