NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. After Brandon is stabilized following his second myocardial infarction due to cocaine use, what collaborative process should begin to connect him with additional resources?
- A. Law enforcement for further prevention
- B. Social services for rehab
- C. Narcotics Anonymous
- D. Financial counselor to apply for assistance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following stabilization, it is essential to connect Brandon with additional resources to address his addiction. Social services are a crucial collaborative partner in this situation because they have access to community resources that can support Brandon's rehabilitation needs. While law enforcement may be involved in certain situations, their primary role is not to provide rehabilitation services. Narcotics Anonymous is a valuable support group but does not offer the comprehensive services that social services for rehab can provide. A financial counselor may be beneficial for addressing financial concerns, but the priority at this stage is to address Brandon's addiction through appropriate rehabilitation services.
2. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?
- A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
- B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
- C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
- D. Both A and C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.
3. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
- A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
- B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
- C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
- D. The effects of PKU are reversible
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).
4. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
5. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
- A. Infants: High bilirubin
- B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
- C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
- D. The Elderly: Malaria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access