NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, what should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Eating three balanced meals a day
- B. Adding complex carbohydrates
- C. Avoiding very heavy meals
- D. Limiting sodium intake to 7 g per day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize avoiding very heavy meals. Eating large, heavy meals can divert blood away from the heart for digestion, potentially endangering clients with coronary artery disease. This practice may lead to an increased risk of plaque accumulation in the arteries, potentially obstructing the delivery of blood and oxygen to vital organs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While eating three balanced meals a day, adding complex carbohydrates, and limiting sodium intake are generally good dietary practices, they are not the primary focus when teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition. The emphasis should be on avoiding heavy meals that can strain the cardiovascular system.
2. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
3. What is a key principle of patient teaching that must take place to ensure patient safety?
- A. Family members should be present
- B. Teaching must be documented
- C. Understanding must be confirmed
- D. Teaching should be provided by multiple staff members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A key principle of patient teaching that ensures patient safety is the confirmation of understanding. To ensure patient safety, it is crucial to confirm that the patient comprehends the information provided. This confirmation can be achieved by having the patient repeat back the information or demonstrate understanding through return demonstration. Documenting the patient's understanding is essential to track the effectiveness of the teaching session and ensure that the patient is equipped with the necessary knowledge for their safety. Family members being present or having multiple staff members provide teaching may be beneficial in certain situations, but the primary focus should be on confirming the patient's understanding to enhance safety and promote effective learning.
4. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
- B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
- C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
- D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.
5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
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