Nursing Elites

1. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the adverse effects the client might experience from the treatment
• B. Verify the client gave consent voluntarily for the treatment
• C. Describe the benefits of the treatment to the client
• D. Outline possible alternatives to the treatment for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:

• A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
• B. The client is able to take a shower
• C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
• D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.

3. If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Justice
• D. Fidelity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

• A. The approximate length of the surgery
• B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
• C. The time of the next meal of solid food
• D. The length of time until the client can return to work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

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