NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A family member is complaining that the lights are too dim in the middle of the night when she comes in to visit her husband. What is the most objective response?
- A. Patients sleep better with the lights dimmed.
- B. The nightshift nurses prefer to work with less light.
- C. It's time for him to sleep, and you should, too.
- D. There's a reason we do that. Let me share a research study with you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most objective response in this situation is to explain to the family member that there is a specific reason for dimming the lights and offer to share a research study to provide evidence-based information. By doing so, it helps the family member understand that the care provided is based on established practices and research, potentially alleviating her concerns and ensuring that her husband receives appropriate care. Choices A, B, and C do not address the family member's concern or provide a rationale backed by evidence, making them less suitable responses in this context.
2. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
3. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
4. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.
5. You are caring for a group of elderly clients, many of whom are affected by multiple chronic disorders and are also, at times, affected by some acute disorders that require medical and nursing attention. As you are caring for these clients, some will need a new medication regimen for an acute disorder. You should consider the fact that the elderly population is at risk for more side effects, adverse drug reactions, and toxicity due to the elderly having a(n):
- A. Increased creatinine clearance.
- B. Impaired immune system.
- C. Decreased hepatic metabolism.
- D. Increased bodily fat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased hepatic metabolism.' The elderly population is at risk for more side effects, adverse drug reactions, and toxicity due to a decrease in hepatic metabolism. This is caused by changes in hepatic functioning in the elderly, including decreased hepatic blood flow and functioning. Choice A, 'Increased creatinine clearance,' is incorrect as aging typically results in decreased, not increased, creatinine clearance. Choice B, 'Impaired immune system,' is not directly related to the increased risk of adverse drug reactions in the elderly. Choice D, 'Increased bodily fat,' is not a primary factor contributing to the increased risk of medication-related issues in the elderly population.
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